Q and A

Does Antigone have a voice of her own or is it Sophocles voice? What is he trying to say?

1) MYTH- Antigone was a tale that had been passed down from generation through generation. She was a legend for her sacrifice for her family and defiance of the king. We know that the skeleton of the story was passed down. However, we aren’t sure how much of the content was. The justification that Antigone proposes for her actions might not be the same every playwright writes the play. So, one can say that Sophocles was the puppet master behind Antigone’s arguments, but not behind her actions.

2) SOPHOCLES- His characteristics play a great part in trying to figure out the purpose behind his work. He was said to be kind and patient, one who held high positions but was never judged critically. There are two theories as to why he wrote what he did.
- IMAGINATION- It is said that he had never experienced feelings of sorrow and grief and pain and thus he wrote plays on it, trying to experience through them these great emotions.
- FAÇADE- Having occupied such high positions; he could not express himself freely. Tragedies were his outlet, where he could express his sorrow, grief and anger without having to put his name to it.

This isn’t really a matter of reasoning, since one can’t be sure if sources can be trusted. But working with the information given I have come to a decision that the argument of imagination prevails. Why?

(i) He was an intellect, having studied under the best teachers and coming from a respectable family. His background might have contributed to the way he approached plays; psychologically. Most of his plays focused on the emotions of the protagonists and their reactions to what takes place around them. Unlike other tragedies which revolve mostly around the Gods.

(ii) When he was in power he would have done something if he wanted to.

(iii) His son filled a law suit against him? But yet he still helped him write plays.

(iv) It was a myth; he took it and wrote it from a psychological perspective. Why would a lady do that? -- Obvious reason: Any human would put their family before state-- He was just presenting that aspect of it.

(v) He didn’t do it from Creon’s view because he had already done Oedipus and they were both pretty similar. (Was Antigone written before Oedipus?)

(vi) One can only pent up their feelings for that long. It’s bound to come out one day.


(vii) During his life, Athens was at its best. What could cause him such fury and pain that he would have to vent it out through a play?

What are the issues that it deals with? Are they relevant to us now? If so how?

1) Fate
2) Inheritance of suffering.
3) Tyranny and its dangers.
4) Family vs the state
5) God’s laws VS Humans laws


Was Sophocles the 1st to use a female as the main character in a Greek tragedy? If so why? (When was ‘Electra’ written?)

Does Antigone follow the mould that Greek tragic heroes usually follow?

1) She was fighting for a cause.
2) She suffered because of it. Ultimately dies for it.
3) The Gods were on her side.
4) People opposed her stand but she persisted.

Why give the female role a voice? And to top it all a contradictory one at that? What was he trying to say?

Does he HAVE to want to say something?
The myth was about how a lady went against the law.
He took it and asked why would she do that?
Ladies are loyal to their families, obvious they would choose family over state.
He expanded the argument and VIOLA there was a play.

What are the arguments that Antigone and Creon throw at each other?
Sophocles had the option of writing the play from Creon’s perspective. Why didn’t he do that? Did taking things from Antigone’s perspective have more meat?